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Date: Thu, 8 Aug 2024 07:20:58 +0200 Mime-Version: 1.0 User-Agent: Mozilla Thunderbird Newsgroups: sci.physics.relativity Content-Language: pl From: Maciej Wozniak <mlwozniak@wp.pl> Subject: Does Lobachevsky's V axiom deny Euclid's V axiom Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8; format=flowed Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit Lines: 8 Path: ...!2.eu.feeder.erje.net!3.eu.feeder.erje.net!feeder.erje.net!usenet.blueworldhosting.com!diablo1.usenet.blueworldhosting.com!tr2.iad1.usenetexpress.com!feeder.usenetexpress.com!tr2.eu1.usenetexpress.com!news.newsdemon.com!not-for-mail Nntp-Posting-Date: Thu, 08 Aug 2024 05:20:57 +0000 X-Received-Bytes: 764 Organization: NewsDemon - www.newsdemon.com X-Complaints-To: abuse@newsdemon.com Message-Id: <17e9a9478a391c46$205292$505064$c2265aab@news.newsdemon.com> Bytes: 1191 Well, they're practically negation of each other. And you won't find a rule "not p is not necessarily denying p" in mathematics - but it is an usual component of pseudophilosophies concocted by morons for excusing both their inconsistencies and plain lies. So - the question is as in the topic. What do you think?