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From: Richard Damon <richard@damon-family.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions?
Date: Wed, 2 Oct 2024 07:19:57 -0400
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
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On 10/1/24 1:33 PM, WM wrote:
> On 01.10.2024 01:07, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 9/30/24 2:54 PM, WM wrote:
> 
>>> NUF(0) = 0 and NUF(1) = ℵo. ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 shows that at 
>>> no point x NUF can increase by more than one step 1. It is fact with 
>>> your set too. I am not responsible. I only made the discovery.
>>
>> Actually, it shows that at no point CAN it increase by 1.
> 
> Wrong because it cannot start with ℵo.

Then it can't be.

>>
>> For any finite number x, NUF(x) will be Aleph_0, and Aleph_0 when you 
>> attempt to "increment" it, doesn't change.
> 
> If NUF is ℵo at all x > 0 then it must count ℵo unit fractions at 0. Wrong.

No, just that there isn't a point for it to start counting at

>>
>> Since there is no finite value of x where NUF(x) can be 1
> 
> Wrong presupposition.

No presumption was made. Just proof.

IT shows that YOUR PRESOPPOSITION, that a finite funciton NUF(x) can 
exist is what is wrong.

Just proves your brain has been blown to smithereens by your 
contradictory logic based on incorrect assumptions.

> 
> Regards, WM