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Path: ...!news.misty.com!weretis.net!feeder9.news.weretis.net!i2pn.org!i2pn2.org!.POSTED!not-for-mail From: Richard Damon <richard@damon-family.org> Newsgroups: sci.math Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? Date: Tue, 8 Oct 2024 09:45:38 -0400 Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org) Message-ID: <21611f85e56b170190cfed598725ad20f1cb8df8@i2pn2.org> References: <vb4rde$22fb4$2@solani.org> <vdqttc$mnhd$1@dont-email.me> <vdr1g3$n3li$6@dont-email.me> <8ce3fac3a0c92d85c72fec966d424548baebe5af@i2pn2.org> <vdrd5q$sn2$2@news.muc.de> <55cbb075e2f793e3c52f55af73c82c61d2ce8d44@i2pn2.org> <vdrgka$sn2$3@news.muc.de> <vds38v$1ih6$6@solani.org> <vdscnj$235p$1@news.muc.de> <vdtt15$16hg6$4@dont-email.me> <vdu54i$271t$1@news.muc.de> <vduata$19d4m$1@dont-email.me> <vduf0m$1tif$1@news.muc.de> <ve076s$1kopi$2@dont-email.me> <ve0j4r$1eu7$2@news.muc.de> <ve2rlh$24f8f$2@dont-email.me> MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8; format=flowed Content-Transfer-Encoding: 8bit Injection-Date: Tue, 8 Oct 2024 13:45:38 -0000 (UTC) Injection-Info: i2pn2.org; logging-data="1114622"; mail-complaints-to="usenet@i2pn2.org"; posting-account="diqKR1lalukngNWEqoq9/uFtbkm5U+w3w6FQ0yesrXg"; User-Agent: Mozilla Thunderbird In-Reply-To: <ve2rlh$24f8f$2@dont-email.me> Content-Language: en-US X-Spam-Checker-Version: SpamAssassin 4.0.0 Bytes: 2704 Lines: 33 On 10/8/24 4:48 AM, WM wrote: > On 07.10.2024 14:11, Alan Mackenzie wrote: >> WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> wrote: > >>> You have not understood that all unit fractions are separate points on >>> the positive axis. >> >> I understand that full well. > > Then you understand that every point, if existing, is independent of the > others. All unit fractions are points with uncounably many points > between each pair. Hence all must be visible including the point next to > zero, but they are not. Just because the concept of points being next to point is just nonsense and contradictory. >>> A shrinking infinite set which remains infinite has an infinite core. >> >> Again, no. There is no such thing as a "core", here. Each of these sets >> has an infinitude of elements. No element is in all of these sets. > > Try to think better. A function of sets which are losing some elements > but remain infinite, have the same infinite core. That argument is > absolutely definite, a logical necessity. If you cannot understand it, > then it is useless to continue this discussion. > Nope, YOUR logic is deficient, and since you insist on holding to it, you are getting nowhere. > Regards, WM >