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From: joes <noreply@example.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: There is a first/smallest integer (in
 =?iso-8859-1?Q?M=FCckenland=29?=
Date: Wed, 17 Jul 2024 20:37:01 -0000 (UTC)
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
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Am Wed, 17 Jul 2024 17:17:54 +0000 schrieb WM:
> Le 17/07/2024 à 19:01, joes a écrit :
>> Am Wed, 17 Jul 2024 15:08:30 +0000 schrieb WM:
>>> Le 17/07/2024 à 16:56, Moebius a écrit :
>>>> Am 17.07.2024 um 16:43 schrieb WM:
>>> 
>>>>> Can you explain how NUF(x) can [jump] from 0 [at x = 0] to [aleph_0]
>>>>> [at any]
>>>>> point x [> 0] although all unit fractions are separated by finite
>>>>> distances [...]
>>>> Yes, of course: For each and every x e IR, x > 0 there are
>>>> countably-infinitely many unit fractions which are <= x. (Hint: No
>>>> first one.)
>>> Thema verfehlt. The question is: How does NUF(x) increase from 0 to
>>> more? There is a point where NUF is 0 and then it increases. How?
>> The same as the sign function.
> No, ℵo finite intervals do not fit between [0, 1] and (0, 1]. The sign
> function fits.
Where do you get this requirement from?
Consider the sign function times infinity.

-- 
Am Fri, 28 Jun 2024 16:52:17 -0500 schrieb olcott:
Objectively I am a genius.