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From: Richard Damon <richard@damon-family.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions?
Date: Wed, 2 Oct 2024 07:17:58 -0400
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID: <461bf21a7f094701b936484f17bd3d68211fcf81@i2pn2.org>
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On 10/1/24 1:39 PM, WM wrote:
> On 01.10.2024 01:14, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 9/30/24 11:15 AM, WM wrote:
>>> On 30.09.2024 00:29, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>>> WM explained on 9/29/2024 :
>>>>> On 28.09.2024 00:08, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>>>>  > WM presented the following explanation :
>>>>>
>>>>>  >> Between two unit fractions there is always a finite gap.
>>>>>  >
>>>>>  > How big?
>>>>>
>>>>> In terms of set theory: uncountably many points.
>>>>
>>>> How wide are these points?
>>>
>>> More than nothing.
>>
>> But it must be next to nothing,
> 
> No, between them and nothing there are infinitely many countable sets 
> and then finite sets of points.

So your "smallest" wasn't the smallest, and your set didn't include all 
the points.

You are just admitting you are a liar and don't know what you are 
talking about.

> 
>> which becomes nothing when we get to the actual infinite set.
> 
> Not in mathematics.

Sure it does. Just not in FINTE mathematics, which can't have the full 
set of the Natural Numbers, which is what breaks yyour logic.

> 
> Regards, WM
>