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From: joes <noreply@example.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Sat, 2 Nov 2024 13:21:01 -0000 (UTC)
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
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Am Fri, 01 Nov 2024 18:03:26 +0100 schrieb WM:
> On 01.11.2024 13:33, FromTheRafters wrote:
>> After serious thinking WM wrote :
>>> On 01.11.2024 11:57, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>>> It happens that WM formulated :
>>>>> On 01.11.2024 00:43, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>> On 10/31/24 1:35 PM, WM wrote:
>>>>>>> On 31.10.2024 12:36, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 10/30/24 11:38 AM, WM wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> NUF(x) MUST jump from 0 to Aleph_0 at all real values x, as
>>>>>>>>>> below ANY real number x, there are Aleph_0 unit fractions.
>>>>>>> You cannot distinguish them by any real number? That proves that
>>>>>>> they are dark.
>>>>>> They are not finite values.
>>>>> All unit fractions are finite values.
>>>> Each unit fraction is finite, the set of all unit fractions is not
>>>> finite. Not finite is 'infinite' and there is no potential or actual
>>>> anymore -- just finite and not finite.
>>> Actual means that all are there,
>> They are all there anyway, by definition.
>>> including the smallest.
>> No smallest, since you simply inverted the set of naturals which has no
>> largest.
> If an invariable set of numbers is there, then there is a smallest and a
> largest number of those which are existing.
That's just wrong.

-- 
Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.