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From: Ben Bacarisse <ben@bsb.me.uk>
Newsgroups: comp.theory
Subject: Re: Is this =?utf-8?B?4oSZ4omg4oSV4oSZ?= proof 'humiliating'?
Date: Mon, 10 Jun 2024 21:45:58 +0100
Organization: A noiseless patient Spider
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wij <wyniijj5@gmail.com> writes:

> On Mon, 2024-06-10 at 00:36 +0100, Ben Bacarisse wrote:
>> wij <wyniijj5@gmail.com> writes:
>> 
>> > On Sun, 2024-06-09 at 20:55 +0100, Ben Bacarisse wrote:
>> > > wij <wyniijj5@gmail.com> writes:
>> > > 
>> > > > ℙ≠ℕℙ
>> > > > Proved. https://sourceforge.net/projects/cscall/files/MisFiles/PNP-proof-en.txt/download
>> > > > ...[cut]
>> > > >    Proof2: Let p="Given a number n, determine whether or not n
>> > > > is even". If
>> > > >           ℙ=ℕℙ, then p∉ℕℙℂ is a false proposition because all
>> > > > ℕℙ problems
>> > > >           including ℕℙℂ are mutually Ptime reducible. Since
>> > > > p∉ℕℙℂ is true,
>> > > >           ℙ≠ℕℙ is concluded.
>> > > 
>> > > Where is your proof that p is not NP-complete?  Since you don't know
>> > > this subject very well, you would benefit more from asking people to
>> > > direct you to resources from which you could learn, rather than posting
>> > > provocative messages.
>> 
>> <silly insults deleted>
>> 
>> > To be on topic, can you show us the p (as mentioned) is NPC or p is
>> > not NPC, either will do, to prove how much you understand what you
>> > talked about.
>> 
>> If I could do that I would be rich, quite literally.  Sadly, I can't and
>> neither can anyone else on the planet (so far).  But if you think you
>> can, head over to the Clay Mathematics Institute and persuade them to
>> give you a million dollars[1].
>> 
>> For the hard-of-understanding, a proof that p, which is obviously in P,
>> is also in NPC would immediately prove that P=NP.  Alternatively, a
>> proof that p is not in NPC would immediately prove that P=/=NP.
>> 
>> [1] https://www.claymath.org/millennium/p-vs-np/
>
> Probably I should make the Proof2 more formal:
>
> If p∈ℕℙℂ, then ℙ=ℕℙ and the concept of ℕℙℂ is useless. 

Correct, though uselessness is not a property that is provable.

> If p∉ℕℙℂ, then ℙ=ℕℙ will be a contradiction (leads to p∈ℕℙℂ), so ℙ≠ℕℙ
> is true in this case.

No.  If p∉ℕℙℂ, then ℙ=ℕℙ is false, i.e. P≠ℕℙ.  There is no
contradiction.  You cannot conclude that this leads to p∈ℕℙℂ.  That's
why in your "less formal" argument you just stated it as an unproven
fact.

> Summary: Because ℕℙℂ is considered not useless, therefore ℙ≠ℕℙ is
> concluded.

ℕℙℂ is interesting only because it's that part of ℕℙ that might not be
in ℙ.  Once the question is settled, it stops being interesting.

-- 
Ben.