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Subject: Re: Contradiction of bijections as a measure for infinite sets
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From: WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de>
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Le 02/04/2024 à 17:51, Jim Burns a écrit :
> On 4/2/2024 3:36 AM, WM wrote:

> If your assumption leads to "no bijection",
> but there is a bijection,
> then your assumption is wrong.

My trick proves that there is no bijection.
Or could you explain why first bijecting n and n/1 should destroy an 
existing bijection?

Regards, WM