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From: joes <noreply@example.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Sun, 20 Oct 2024 22:37:20 -0000 (UTC)
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
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Am Sun, 20 Oct 2024 21:54:39 +0200 schrieb WM:
> On 20.10.2024 21:42, Jim Burns wrote:
>> On 10/20/2024 3:24 PM, WM wrote:
>>> On 20.10.2024 20:20, Jim Burns wrote:
>>>> On 10/20/2024 3:48 AM, WM wrote:
>>>>> On 20.10.2024 00:54, Jim Burns wrote:
>>>>>> On 10/19/2024 2:19 PM, WM wrote:

>>>> If all finites are doubled,
>>>>then all results are in the set of finites.
>>> But not in the mapped or multiplied range.
>> If n is countable.to from 0 then 2⋅n is countable.to from 0
> Nevertheless 2n is not in the set {1, ..., n}.
We are not doubling a finite set. And 2n is in N for every n e N.

-- 
Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.