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From: tomyee3@gmail.com (ProkaryoticCaspaseHomolog)
Newsgroups: sci.physics.relativity
Subject: Re: E =?UTF-8?B?PSAzLzQgbWM/IG9yIEUgPSBtYz8/IFRoZSBmb3Jnb3R0ZW4gSGFzc2Vu?=
 =?UTF-8?B?b2hybCAxOTA1IHdvcmsu?=
Date: Sun, 8 Dec 2024 06:46:04 +0000
Organization: novaBBS
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On Sun, 8 Dec 2024 5:42:07 +0000, ProkaryoticCaspaseHomolog wrote:

> On Sat, 7 Dec 2024 21:35:57 +0000, J. J. Lodder wrote:
>
>> I'm sorry, but this is not the right answer,
>
> So what are you saying, then? Are you saying that, because of the
> definition of E=mc^2, it is totally required that 1 gram of electrons
> annihilating 1 gram of positrons completely to electromagnetic
> radiation must NECESSICARILY yield the same amount of energy as 1 gram
> of protons annihilating 1 gram of antiprotons completely to electro-
> magnetic radiation? That the equality of these two values is a matter
> of definition, not something to be established by experiment?
>
> Are you saying that because the current definition of c is
> 299,792,458 meters per second regardless of wavelength, that questions
> as to whether gamma rays travel faster than visible light rays are
> totally nonsensical?

In fewer words:

No experiment can measure a difference between the amount of energy
released by the complete annihilation of 1 g of (electrons + positrons)
versus the complete annihilation of 1 g of (protons + antiprotons).
True or false?

No experiment can measure a difference between the speed of visible
light photons versus the speed of gamma rays. True or false?