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From: Richard Damon <richard@damon-family.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions?
Date: Mon, 30 Sep 2024 19:14:35 -0400
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID: <c23e4e3d9dfa7eade32142279e48303fe9f65539@i2pn2.org>
References: <vb4rde$22fb4$2@solani.org> <vc7d61$2b1ga$1@dont-email.me>
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On 9/30/24 11:15 AM, WM wrote:
> On 30.09.2024 00:29, FromTheRafters wrote:
>> WM explained on 9/29/2024 :
>>> On 28.09.2024 00:08, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>>  > WM presented the following explanation :
>>>
>>>  >> Between two unit fractions there is always a finite gap.
>>>  >
>>>  > How big?
>>>
>>> In terms of set theory: uncountably many points.
>>
>> How wide are these points?
> 
> More than nothing.
> 
> Regards, WM
> 

But it must be next to nothing, which becomes nothing when we get to the 
actual infinite set.

Sorry, your logi is just broken.