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From: ram@zedat.fu-berlin.de (Stefan Ram)
Newsgroups: comp.misc
Subject: Re: Derivative Licensing Question
Date: 22 Mar 2025 09:26:26 GMT
Organization: Stefan Ram
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mm0fmf <none@invalid.com> wrote or quoted:
>If I take the source and clone the functions so they have the same 
>prototypes but write them in assembler and have the same flow, is this a 
>derivative work?  Or is the assembler version my work to licence how I 
>feel?

  "Writing them in assembler with the same flow" might be nothing
  more than compiling and disassembling.

  You also could ask an AI chatbot to write code for you.
  AFAIK this can be used by you as if it was not coprighted.

  I sometimes wonder about copright when you copy and then
  change. Say, you copy this copyrighted program:

A = 2

  . (It's too short to be copyrighted, but it serves here to
  represent a much longer piece of code.) You make a little
  change to it:

B = 2

  . Later you change it into:

B = 7

  . Now your program clearly has nothing to do with the original
  anymore. You just used that to get started but then gradually
  transformed it into your own code. So, is "B = 7" now free from
  any copyright of the original author of "A = 2"? At what point
  during the transition exactly did the copyright disappear?