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From: joes <noreply@example.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Sun, 20 Oct 2024 23:04:50 -0000 (UTC)
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID: <ea5dfe65e55b87e9bfcd8f4aa1f8110d68570ac9@i2pn2.org>
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Am Sat, 19 Oct 2024 10:23:05 +0200 schrieb WM:
> On 18.10.2024 03:26, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 10/17/24 2:46 PM, WM wrote:
> 
>>> When doubling natural numbers we obtain even numbers which have not
>>> been doubled.
>> Then your "Actual Infinity" wasn't actually infinte.
>> As it must contain *ALL* the Natural Numbers to be that set.
> Therefore the double numbers are not natural but infinite.
Then half of an infinite number is finite?

>>> 2n > n is always true, in finite and in infinite sets.
>> In FINITE or ORDINAL systems, and there 2n will be in the same actually
>> infinite set as n.
> That is not possible if all natural numbers are doubled. The result
> covers the interval (0, ω*2) twice as large as the original one (0, ω).
This destroys the ordering. If m>n, then 2m>2n.

>> In Infinte Cardinal spaces (like Aleph_0 is in) 2n == n
-- 
Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.