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NNTP-Posting-Date: Thu, 12 Sep 2024 20:42:16 +0000
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (constructive)
Newsgroups: sci.math
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From: Ross Finlayson <ross.a.finlayson@gmail.com>
Date: Thu, 12 Sep 2024 13:42:21 -0700
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On 09/10/2024 02:21 AM, Jim Burns wrote:
> On 9/9/2024 11:11 PM, Ross Finlayson wrote:
>> On 09/09/2024 11:23 AM, Jim Burns wrote:
>>> On 9/9/2024 12:59 PM, Ross Finlayson wrote:
>>>> On 09/08/2024 09:59 PM, Jim Burns wrote:
>>>>> On 9/8/2024 6:34 PM, Ross Finlayson wrote:
>
>>>>>> It's already been thoroughly elaborated and
>>>>>> as attached to formalistic symbolry,
>>>>>> that "Russell's thesis, of an antinomy" is that
>>>>>> the set of
>>>>>> the finite sets that don't contain themselves,
>>>>>> exactly like the ordinals are mostly simply modeled to be,
>>>>>> does and doesn't contain itself,
>
>>>>> I wonder what your own conscientious response
>>>>> will be to the infiniteness of the set of
>>>>> all finite non.self.membered sets.
>
>> To your question, "are the finites infinite",
>> well yeah.
>
> It seems to me (JB) that
> ⎛
> ⎜ Russell's thesis is that
> ⎜ the set of
> ⎜ the finite sets that don't contain themselves
> ⎜ does and doesn't contain itself
> ⎝
> is and is not what you (RF) are claiming.
>
>


(re-sent)

Oh, perhaps, maybe, in a sense, weighing alternatives,
it's what I'm claiming is that it isn't and not is
what BR Bertrand Russell is claiming.


Of course, overgeneralization is generally unsound,
while there are absolutes in logic, and for example
the unbounded and completions and closures in logic,
which you make BR a dupe and dupe you to unfasten.


Now, maybe this message will reach you or maybe it won't,
...., maybe it won't.