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NNTP-Posting-Date: Sun, 15 Sep 2024 17:06:10 +0000
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions?
Newsgroups: sci.math
References: <vb4rde$22fb4$2@solani.org> <vbnuqq$2it4a$2@dont-email.me>
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From: Ross Finlayson <ross.a.finlayson@gmail.com>
Date: Sun, 15 Sep 2024 10:06:19 -0700
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On 09/15/2024 09:38 AM, Ben Bacarisse wrote:
> "Chris M. Thomasson" <chris.m.thomasson.1@gmail.com> writes:
>
>> On 9/14/2024 11:35 AM, joes wrote:
>>> Am Sat, 14 Sep 2024 16:01:02 +0200 schrieb WM:
>>>> On 14.09.2024 01:05, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>>>> WM explained :
>>>>
>>>>>> No, that is your big mistake. In the interval [0, 1] there is a point
>>>>>> next to 0 and a point next to 1, and infinitely many are beteen them.
>>>>> Define 'next' in this context.
>>>> Two points are next to each other means that no point is between them.
>>> Which is the case for no two (different) reals.
>>
>> Two points on the real line that are different from one another have
>> infinite points between them, and so on and so forth. :^)
>
> It might be worth pointing out that any non-trivial interval [a, b] on
> the real line (i.e. with b > a) contains an uncountable number of
> points.  Constructing the mid point and the quarter points and so on
> only shows a countably infinite number of internal points, but giving a
> bijection between [a, b] and [0, 1] shows that they have the same
> cardinality.
>

Perhaps you might care to define "function" and "topology".