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Path: ...!fu-berlin.de!uni-berlin.de!individual.net!not-for-mail From: Thomas Heger <ttt_heg@web.de> Newsgroups: sci.physics.relativity Subject: Scalar waves Date: Sun, 28 Apr 2024 07:46:54 +0200 Lines: 26 Message-ID: <l96663F16l9U1@mid.individual.net> Mime-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8; format=flowed Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit X-Trace: individual.net 0C5vVMQ3vXshTnKlrhsXxge/vHRvaGbrvEyZQHEMD2agyhEkqK Cancel-Lock: sha1:zjpZMC3QhFecXlpTJ1WCSwEdhco= sha256:LHnB2gNFPl20FWYA/F6W5Htmv2oH+WEF3lFmpHtYuU4= User-Agent: Mozilla Thunderbird Content-Language: de-DE Bytes: 1326 Hi Ng I had read recently something from Tom Bearden. He wrote, that scalar waves are longitudinal waves, which vary in velocity and are acompanied by a wave, which runs backwards in time. The idea is a little strange and would require to give up the constancy of the speed of light in vacuum, but to allow a variation of the speed of light in vacuum. This would cause a wavelike behavior, but longitudinal (opposite to classical em-waves). This behaviour was called 'polarized in the time-domain'. Is this somehow correct? (The 'backwards in time wave' is actually no prblem for me, because I had assumed something similar before.) TH