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From: Ruud Harmsen <rh@rudhar.com>
Newsgroups: sci.lang
Subject: Re: Chilean Spanish (was: Re: Finally)
Date: Sun, 10 Mar 2024 07:12:46 +0100
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Sat, 9 Mar 2024 20:51:13 -0000 (UTC): Christian Weisgerber
<naddy@mips.inka.de> scribeva:

>On 2024-03-04, Athel Cornish-Bowden <me@yahoo.com> wrote:
>
>>> PS: I started watching _Baby Bandito_ on Netflix.  Chilean Spanish
>>>     turns out to be, uhm, interesting.  Wikipedia has the subject
>>>     covered, of course.
>>
>> Could you expand on that? As it happens Chilean Spanish is the Spanish 
>> that I know best, heavily influenced in recent years by Spanish Spanish.
>
>The two salient properties are the pronunciation of -s and Chilean
>voseo.
>
>Coda /s/ is debuccalized to [h] or even deleted completely.

That's not typical of Chile. It also happens in Argentinian, Cuban and
Andalusian Spanish. And propably a lot of other too.

>Considering the importance of -s for the Spanish inflectional system,
>loss of -s should trigger significant compensatory changes.  That
>doesn't really seem to be the case (but see below), so I guess there
>is a lot of [h] pronunciation left, even though I have a hard time
>hearing it.
>
>When people talk to each other, the verb forms are weird.  Okay,
>so it's voseo.  Except, it's not.  Well, it is, but not the more
>familiar Rioplatense kind.  Chilean comes with its own set of
>voseo endings, frequently used with tú as well.  In short:
>  -áis > -ái
>  -ais > -ai
>  -éis > -ís
>  -ís  > -ís
>That is oddly asymmetric.  Is the final -s of -ís actually pronounced?
>Or is this merely an orthographic convention to distinguish it from
>the indefinido 1. sg. -í?  The use of -ái/-ai introduces no ambiguity
>and compensates for the loss of -s when compared to normal voseo
>-ás/-as.

-- 
Ruud Harmsen, https://rudhar.com