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Path: ...!weretis.net!feeder9.news.weretis.net!feeder8.news.weretis.net!news.szaf.org!inka.de!mips.inka.de!.POSTED.localhost!not-for-mail From: Christian Weisgerber <naddy@mips.inka.de> Newsgroups: sci.lang,alt.usage.english Subject: Re: The 'have' of possession Date: Tue, 30 Apr 2024 14:57:28 -0000 (UTC) Message-ID: <slrnv321mo.20f8.naddy@lorvorc.mips.inka.de> References: <v0q124$29skf$1@dont-email.me> Injection-Date: Tue, 30 Apr 2024 14:57:28 -0000 (UTC) Injection-Info: lorvorc.mips.inka.de; posting-host="localhost:::1"; logging-data="66025"; mail-complaints-to="usenet@mips.inka.de" User-Agent: slrn/1.0.3 (FreeBSD) Bytes: 1993 Lines: 28 On 2024-04-30, Peter Moylan <peter@pmoylan.org.invalid> wrote: > This bothers me. What should (most) Celtic languages and (some) Slavic > languages share a feature that is not found in the many languages that > sit geographically between them? Ross has already pointed to the World Atlas of Language Structures: "As the map demonstrates, the distribution of the various types of predicative possession shows considerable areal effects. Eurasia and North Africa (with the exception of the languages of western Europe) is almost exclusively the domain of the Oblique Possessive." So you might say that Celtic and Russian show the expected form of predicative possession outside the influence of the Charlemagne Sprachbund[1]. It is important to realize that extensive contact has made the languages of Western Europe very similar to each other in many respects and that many speakers of those languages, when they think of foreign languages, only have other languages from that close-knit group in mind. Somewhere I've also read the suggestion that Russian might have been influenced by Finnic languages. [1] aka Standard Average European https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_Average_European -- Christian "naddy" Weisgerber naddy@mips.inka.de