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From: Richard Damon <richard@damon-family.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: Contradiction of bijections as a measure for infinite sets
Date: Thu, 4 Apr 2024 08:19:04 -0400
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
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On 4/4/24 5:33 AM, WM wrote:
> Le 03/04/2024 à 15:59, FromTheRafters a écrit :
>> WM presented the following explanation :
>>> Le 02/04/2024 à 17:51, Jim Burns a écrit :
>>>> On 4/2/2024 3:36 AM, WM wrote:
>>>
>>>> If your assumption leads to "no bijection",
>>>> but there is a bijection,
>>>> then your assumption is wrong.
>>>
>>> My trick proves that there is no bijection.
>>> Or could you explain why first bijecting n and n/1 should destroy an 
>>> existing bijection?
>>
>> Your 'trick' only fails to demonstrate a bijection. Failing to 
>> demonstrate a bijection does not mean that there is no bijection, only 
>> that your 'trick' doesn't work to that end.
> 
> Explain why first bijecting n and n/1 should destroy an existing bijection!
> 
> Regards, WM

It doesn't, Bijections are always between two DISTINCT sets, not a set 
and a piece of itself thought of as a set.

Not following directions breaks a lot of things.