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From: Moebius <invalid@example.invalid>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions?
Date: Sun, 22 Sep 2024 21:07:16 +0200
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Am 22.09.2024 um 20:55 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
> On 9/22/2024 6:27 AM, WM wrote:
>> On 22.09.2024 01:24, Richard Damon wrote:
>>> On 9/21/24 4:02 PM, WM wrote:
>>>> On 21.09.2024 01:04, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>  > On 9/20/24 2:13 PM, WM wrote:
>>>>  >> On 20.09.2024 05:35, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>  >>> On 9/19/24 9:02 AM, WM wrote:
>>>>  >>
>>>>  >>>> "always another" is potential infinity. I am discussing actual 
>>>> infinity where all are there at once and no "always" is used.
>>>>  >>>
>>>>  >>> So, then how do you describe that fact that there IS always 
>>>> another.
>>>>  >>
>>>>  >> The reason is that only a potentially infinite collection of 
>>>> elements can be utilzed.
>>>>  >
>>>>  > But what keeps you from actually utilizing any of them?
>>>>
>>>> The fact that every used number belongs to a finite initial segment 
>>>> upon which almost all numbers are following.
>>>
>>> So, we can just choose the finite initial segment that includes that 
>>> number, and thus can use it,
>>
>> But you cannot choose the infinite rest.
> 
> If a tree falls in a forest... ;^D

Who knows ...