Path: ...!eternal-september.org!feeder3.eternal-september.org!news.eternal-september.org!.POSTED!not-for-mail
From: "Chris M. Thomasson" <chris.m.thomasson.1@gmail.com>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions?
Date: Sun, 22 Sep 2024 14:35:04 -0700
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On 9/22/2024 2:27 PM, FromTheRafters wrote:
> Chris M. Thomasson laid this down on his screen :
>> On 9/22/2024 6:27 AM, WM wrote:
>>> On 22.09.2024 01:24, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>> On 9/21/24 4:02 PM, WM wrote:
>>>>> On 21.09.2024 01:04, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>  > On 9/20/24 2:13 PM, WM wrote:
>>>>>  >> On 20.09.2024 05:35, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>  >>> On 9/19/24 9:02 AM, WM wrote:
>>>>>  >>
>>>>>  >>>> "always another" is potential infinity. I am discussing 
>>>>> actual infinity where all are there at once and no "always" is used.
>>>>>  >>>
>>>>>  >>> So, then how do you describe that fact that there IS always 
>>>>> another.
>>>>>  >>
>>>>>  >> The reason is that only a potentially infinite collection of 
>>>>> elements can be utilzed.
>>>>>  >
>>>>>  > But what keeps you from actually utilizing any of them?
>>>>>
>>>>> The fact that every used number belongs to a finite initial segment 
>>>>> upon which almost all numbers are following.
>>>>
>>>> So, we can just choose the finite initial segment that includes that 
>>>> number, and thus can use it,
>>>
>>> But you cannot choose the infinite rest.
>>
>> If a tree falls in a forest... ;^D
> 
> ...and there is nobody there to see it, does it make a sight?

Not sure. Might have to ask the Disney critters around there. Well, 
hummm.... Not these guys! Oh shit:

https://youtu.be/hulS6xlnvNA

God damn! wow.