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Path: ...!news.nobody.at!eternal-september.org!feeder3.eternal-september.org!news.eternal-september.org!.POSTED!not-for-mail From: "Paul.B.Andersen" <relativity@paulba.no> Newsgroups: sci.physics.relativity Subject: =?UTF-8?Q?Re=3A_I_dare_to_relativists_to_explain_local_time=3A_t-vx?= =?UTF-8?Q?/c=C2=B2?= Date: Sat, 5 Oct 2024 15:23:15 +0200 Organization: A noiseless patient Spider Lines: 127 Message-ID: <vdrefq$p4rf$1@dont-email.me> References: <8dc9a6eb5ee097da5239175cb7833cd6@www.novabbs.com> <vdokav$6m87$1@dont-email.me> <d885ef8307d7eb48a4157a4e5eb97ab6@www.novabbs.com> <vdpbaq$alks$1@dont-email.me> <1e0cdddca00fbd5c020523a0f244d79f@www.novabbs.com> MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8; format=flowed Content-Transfer-Encoding: 8bit Injection-Date: Sat, 05 Oct 2024 15:20:59 +0200 (CEST) Injection-Info: dont-email.me; posting-host="4ba1ab624bed837cb4a9dee8eaeec4e4"; logging-data="824175"; mail-complaints-to="abuse@eternal-september.org"; posting-account="U2FsdGVkX1/tp/vfdAN9vmhafLTJK+Ac" User-Agent: Mozilla Thunderbird Cancel-Lock: sha1:eEFkMVNwemiYJizO6RhBmmTYxBw= Content-Language: en-GB In-Reply-To: <1e0cdddca00fbd5c020523a0f244d79f@www.novabbs.com> Bytes: 5342 Den 05.10.2024 00:16, skrev rhertz: > On Fri, 4 Oct 2024 18:17:06 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote: > Den 03.10.2024 22:23, skrev Paul.B.Andersen: >> Den 03.10.2024 06:18, skrev rhertz: >>> >>> >>> 1904 ORIGINAL LORENTZ TRANSFORMS >>> >>> x' = β x ; Lorentz Eq. 4 >>> t' = t/β - β vx/c² ; Lorentz Eq. 5 >> >> No, this is not the Lorentz transform. >> Lorentz used the Galilean transform first, and then he >> "transform these formulae further by a change of variables". >> >> It's is these two transforms together that make the Lorentz transform. >> See: >> https://paulba.no/div/LTorigin.pdf >> >> He doesn't explain the "change of variables", but the purpose is clear. >> To "explain" the Michelson-Morley experiment, Maxwell's equation >> must be invariant. (Idea from Poincare.) So "the change of variables" >> was what they had to be to achieve that purpose. >> > ARE YOU BECOME, FINALLY, FULL RETARDED?? SHAME ON YOU! > IT COMES DIRECTLY FROM 1904 LORENTZ PAPER: > > H.A. Lorentz, Electromagnetic phenomena in a system moving with any > velocity smaller than that of light > > 1904 ORIGINAL LORENTZ TRANSFORMS > > x' = β x ; Lorentz Eq. 4 > t' = t/β - β vx/c² ; Lorentz Eq. 5 (HERE IS LOCAL TIME WITH ETHER) > Quite. Directly from Lorentz. It is the "change of variables" transform, which is not the Lorentz transform. > Making x = X - vt (Einstein did that, to get rid of ether) > No, Einstein never used the Galilean transform, but Lorentz did. As I told you above: Lorentz used the Galilean transform _first_, and then he "transform these formulae further by a change of variables". It's is these two transforms together that make the Lorentz transform: > t' = β (t - vX/c²) > x' = β (X - vt) See: https://paulba.no/div/LTorigin.pdf >> >> Einstein started with the second postulate, the speed of light >> is invariant (the same in all inertial frames). >> >> So Einstein didn't copy anything, but since the invariance of Maxwell's >> equation follows from the invariance of the speed of light, >> they ended up with the same transform. See: https://paulba.no/paper/Electrodynamics.pdf Read §3 Theory of the Transformation of Co-ordinates and Times from a Stationary System to another System in Uniform Motion of Translation Relatively to the Former You will NOT find the "change of variables" transform: (l set to 1) c²/(c²-v²) = β² Lorentz equation (3) x' = βx, y'= y, z'= z Lorentz equation (4) t' = t/β - βvx/c² Lorentz equation (5) Einstein never plagiarised Lorentz's "change of variables" transform. and you will NOT find the Galilean transform: x' = x - vt (or x = X - vt) so when you said: "In 1905, Einstein introduced (TRICK, out of the blue) x = X - vt, in order to get rid of ether." you were LYING because you must know that it isn't true. >> >> You can see what Lorentz meant by "local time" in chapter 3 here: >> >> https://paulba.no/div/LTorigin.pdf >> >> Quote: >> "Lorentz called the t' coordinate ’local time’, as opposed to >> the t coordinate which was the ’absolute time’ inherited from Newton. >> But note that this ’local time’ is what it shown by local clocks, >> and it is the ’local time’ that can be measured. >> The ’absolute time’ t is unobservable." >> I wrote: "Lorentz called the t' coordinate ’local time’" But Richard must have read something else: > > Only a blind, deaf and stupid relativist like you deny WRITTEN HISTORY! > > > Here is what Lorentz wrote about "local time" in his 1904 paper (p.813): > > ************************************ > "The variabie t' may be called the "local time"; indeed, tor k = 1, > 1 = 1 it becomes identical with what I have formerly understood by > this name," > > *********************************** > > DID YOU GET IT, IGNORANT? Sometimes your misinterpretation of the text you are reading is hilarious! :-D -- Paul https://paulba.no/