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From: WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Mon, 28 Oct 2024 20:55:19 +0100
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On 28.10.2024 12:21, Richard Damon wrote:
> On 10/28/24 6:30 AM, WM wrote:
>> On 27.10.2024 18:05, Moebius wrote:
>>> Am 27.10.2024 um 17:07 schrieb WM:
>>>
>>>> After NUF(x') = 1
>>>
>>> There is no x' e IR such that NUF(x') = 1.
>>
>> There is NUF(0) = 0. NUF(1) > 0. Hence NUF increases. This cannot 
>> happen by more than single unitfractions with interruptions, according 
>> to mathematics:
>> ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 .

> It can not happen AT FINITE VALUES, but can "between" them,

Yes, at undefinable values.

> like just 
> above 0, where it jumps from 0 to Aleph_0

Not at one point, definable or not.

Regards, W;