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From: WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Thu, 31 Oct 2024 09:24:14 +0100
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On 30.10.2024 21:24, FromTheRafters wrote:
> WM explained :
>> On 30.10.2024 16:43, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>> on 10/30/2024, WM supposed :
>>
>>>> Believe what you like without foundation.
>>>> If ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 is true, the NUF(x) grows in steps of 
>>>> not more than 1.
>>>
>>> Wrong.
>>
>> What? ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 ?
> 
> No, the other part. Your 'conclusion' is a non sequitur.

My conclusion is that all unit fractions are separated by large sets of 
real points from each other. Never two or more unit fractions are at the 
same point. Is that what you doubt? Hardly.

Then you must doubt that NUF(x) can grow only by 1 at any point x? But why?

Regards, WM