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From: FromTheRafters <FTR@nomail.afraid.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Thu, 31 Oct 2024 04:29:31 -0400
Organization: Peripheral Visions
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WM submitted this idea :
> On 30.10.2024 21:24, FromTheRafters wrote:
>> WM explained :
>>> On 30.10.2024 16:43, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>>> on 10/30/2024, WM supposed :
>>>
>>>>> Believe what you like without foundation.
>>>>> If ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 is true, the NUF(x) grows in steps of not 
>>>>> more than 1.
>>>>
>>>> Wrong.
>>>
>>> What? ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 ?
>> 
>> No, the other part. Your 'conclusion' is a non sequitur.
>
> My conclusion is that all unit fractions are separated by large sets of real 
> points from each other. Never two or more unit fractions are at the same 
> point. Is that what you doubt? Hardly.
>
> Then you must doubt that NUF(x) can grow only by 1 at any point x? But why?

Because NUF() doesn't "grow" it just *is*.