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From: WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Thu, 31 Oct 2024 09:41:11 +0100
Message-ID: <vfvfr6$9264$5@solani.org>
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On 31.10.2024 09:29, FromTheRafters wrote:
> WM submitted this idea :
>> On 30.10.2024 21:24, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>> WM explained :
>>>> On 30.10.2024 16:43, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>>>> on 10/30/2024, WM supposed :
>>>>
>>>>>> Believe what you like without foundation.
>>>>>> If ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 is true, the NUF(x) grows in steps of 
>>>>>> not more than 1.
>>>>>
>>>>> Wrong.
>>>>
>>>> What? ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 ?
>>>
>>> No, the other part. Your 'conclusion' is a non sequitur.
>>
>> My conclusion is that all unit fractions are separated by large sets 
>> of real points from each other. Never two or more unit fractions are 
>> at the same point. Is that what you doubt? Hardly.
>>
>> Then you must doubt that NUF(x) can grow only by 1 at any point x? But 
>> why?
> 
> Because NUF() doesn't "grow" it just *is*.

According to set theory every function just "is". But we analyze or 
describe its behaviour with increasing argument x as increasing, 
constant or decreasing. Should that be forbidden in case of NUF in order 
to avoid problems?

Regards, WM