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From: WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Thu, 31 Oct 2024 10:31:27 +0100
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On 31.10.2024 10:04, FromTheRafters wrote:
> WM wrote :
>> On 31.10.2024 09:29, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>> WM submitted this idea :
>>>> On 30.10.2024 21:24, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>>>> WM explained :
>>>>>> On 30.10.2024 16:43, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>>>>>> on 10/30/2024, WM supposed :
>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Believe what you like without foundation.
>>>>>>>> If ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 is true, the NUF(x) grows in steps 
>>>>>>>> of not more than 1.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Wrong.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> What? ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 ?
>>>>>
>>>>> No, the other part. Your 'conclusion' is a non sequitur.
>>>>
>>>> My conclusion is that all unit fractions are separated by large sets 
>>>> of real points from each other. Never two or more unit fractions are 
>>>> at the same point. Is that what you doubt? Hardly.
>>>>
>>>> Then you must doubt that NUF(x) can grow only by 1 at any point x? 
>>>> But why?
>>>
>>> Because NUF() doesn't "grow" it just *is*.
>>
>> According to set theory every function just "is". But we analyze or 
>> describe its behaviour with increasing argument x as increasing, 
>> constant or decreasing. Should that be forbidden in case of NUF in 
>> order to avoid problems?
> 
> Well, it would cure your discontinuity dyslexia problems.

No mathematical arguments available?
No mathematical arguments available!

Regards, WM