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From: WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Sun, 3 Nov 2024 13:47:03 +0100
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On 03.11.2024 09:52, joes wrote:
> Am Sat, 02 Nov 2024 18:42:15 +0100 schrieb WM:
>> On 02.11.2024 14:50, Moebius wrote:
>>> Am 02.11.2024 um 14:21 schrieb joes:
>>>> Am Fri, 01 Nov 2024 18:03:26 +0100 schrieb WM:
>>>
>>>>> If an invariable set of numbers is there, then there is a smallest
>>>>> and a largest number of those which are existing.
>>> or each and every n e IN there is an n' e IN (say n' = n+1)
>> Actual infinity is not based on claims for each and every, but concerns
>> all.
> Lol. That actually sheds some light on your thought process:
> how do you suppose some property holds for all x, but not
> for every?

Every natnumber is finite. But here I mean that not only induction can 
be applied and that induction is not valid for all natnumbers.

Regards, WM