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From: FromTheRafters <FTR@nomail.afraid.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Mon, 04 Nov 2024 06:10:41 -0500
Organization: Peripheral Visions
Lines: 15
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References: <vb4rde$22fb4$2@solani.org>   <vfjg9h$3rjvp$2@dont-email.me> <vfkqlr$3fii$1@solani.org> <vflgnb$fblp$1@dont-email.me> <vflop8$1fpr2$2@solani.org> <e7920520807a00a070c701d5953e4416ce0dfd66@i2pn2.org> <vfnpf2$ukv3$1@dont-email.me> <vfns3j$3r5kq$2@i2pn2.org> <vfoq1m$14lcd$4@dont-email.me> <vfp9q0$3tqss$3@i2pn2.org> <vfq750$1fqil$2@dont-email.me> <vfqfpk$3vms5$2@i2pn2.org> <vftjuj$26ql1$2@dont-email.me> <30dffbdf129483f7b61e3284d1e7bf2ad2e5ea16@i2pn2.org> <vg0f4f$2p50e$2@dont-email.me> <9ca97f4a24ae1e3041583265125cf860d2fada11@i2pn2.org> <vg2bfl$375p7$1@dont-email.me> <vg2c64$3799e$1@dont-email.me> <vg2eju$37aml$1@dont-email.me> <vg2hr4$388sl$1@dont-email.me> <vg31kv$3av1t$1@dont-email.me> <6ed3abd1b4d30ed6db4b9152f7a0ad5da583f147@i2pn2.org> <vg5ame$3qfvj$1@dont-email.me> <vg5o9n$3sb7d$6@dont-email.me> <9a16dc217c4a1833dd297216773623a70ad06a10@i2pn2.org> <vg7rc7$a5q3$3@dont-email.me> <9aee86160da6eb1d047509ca9f0a82344039a4e9@i2pn2.org> <vga9tn$t046$4@dont-email.me>
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WM presented the following explanation :
> On 03.11.2024 22:21, Richard Damon wrote:
>
>> But Induction *IS* valid for all Natural Numbers.
>
> Only for all natnumbers which can be defined and which belong to a finite 
> initial segment which is followed by ℵo natnumbers most of which you cannot 
> define.
>
> By induction you can prove the sum n(n+1)/2 for every initial segment 
> 1+2+3+...+n. But not for all natural numbers.

"Only for all natnumbers which can be (weasel word) and which belong to 
a finite initial segment which is followed by ℵo natnumbers most of 
which you cannot (weasel word)."