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From: "Chris M. Thomasson" <chris.m.thomasson.1@gmail.com>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: 2N=E
Date: Mon, 4 Nov 2024 13:02:27 -0800
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On 11/4/2024 5:26 AM, Moebius wrote:
> Am 04.11.2024 um 10:26 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
>> On 11/4/2024 12:45 AM, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>> Chris M. Thomasson pretended :
>>>> On 11/3/2024 2:40 PM, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
>>>>> On 11/3/2024 3:56 AM, WM wrote:
> 
>>>>>> If all naturals are there, then no further one is [bla bla bla].
> 
> That is implied by the MEANING of /all/. HOLY SHIT!!!
> 
>>>>> Sigh. There are infinite natural numbers, there is no last largest 
>>>>> one.
> 
> "infinite" => "infinitely many"
> 
>>>> I should say infinitely many natural numbers... Sorry! ;^o
> 
> Right.
> 
>>> Yeah, it is best to use the words 'set of' when 'all' is invoked. The 
>>> set of all natural numbers is infinite while each and every one of 
>>> the elements is finite. In that sense (the set of) 'all' is different 
>>> from 'each' and 'every'.
>>
>> Each and every natural number is in all of them and vise versa? Fair 
>> enough?
> 
> Nope.
> 
> Each and every natural number is in THE SET OF all of them.
> 
> 

Agreed. For some reason, I was just thinking of the infinite and 
different ways to represent 1.

1 = 1*1
1 = 1*2 - 1*1
1 = 1*3 - 1*2
1 = 4-3
1 = 3 - 1 - 1
1 = 3 - 2
....

lol. ;^) These are using all natural numbers. Any of them will do:

1 = 42-41

So, in this like of thinking 1 can be comprised of math in multiple 
ways? Is that a fucked up line of thinking? ;^o