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From: robby <me@plan.net.ivalid>
Newsgroups: fr.sci.maths
Subject: Re: 0!=1 ?
Date: Thu, 16 Mar 2023 07:12:07 +0100
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Le 15/03/2023 à 10:39, Olivier Miakinen a écrit :
> Oui, en effet. Et pour tendre vers l'infini on peut prendre
> b = 1/(a.log(a)) ou tout simplement b = 1/a. Merci !

euh, ça ne respecte pas le cahier des charges que b et a doivent tendre 
vers 0 en même temps ;-)

-- 
Fabrice