Path: ...!news.misty.com!3.eu.feeder.erje.net!feeder.erje.net!eternal-september.org!feeder3.eternal-september.org!news.eternal-september.org!.POSTED!not-for-mail From: wij Newsgroups: comp.theory Subject: Re: Improved =?UTF-8?Q?=E2=84=99=E2=89=A0=E2=84=95=E2=84=99?= proof Date: Wed, 05 Jun 2024 15:33:17 +0800 Organization: A noiseless patient Spider Lines: 99 Message-ID: <22b8a8909a18d0b9e6fbf9285b20f903b1e5ab48.camel@gmail.com> References: <108d3c553ccae9c7e6eeb1b8b1a85a52b8b0b78d.camel@gmail.com> <9bf939d70b9ee022a01a7b1dd9eaa705da397d88.camel@gmail.com> MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset="UTF-8" Content-Transfer-Encoding: quoted-printable Injection-Date: Wed, 05 Jun 2024 09:33:19 +0200 (CEST) Injection-Info: dont-email.me; posting-host="77ba2c3100ec53a40d8543bab07882bc"; logging-data="934560"; mail-complaints-to="abuse@eternal-september.org"; posting-account="U2FsdGVkX1/BqbzK3OKkH0UW1XZD/DGe" User-Agent: Evolution 3.50.2 (3.50.2-1.fc39) Cancel-Lock: sha1:6UOwJv8HBQDispSKO3nUmQRkBKc= In-Reply-To: Bytes: 5459 On Tue, 2024-06-04 at 16:14 +0200, immibis wrote: > On 3/06/24 16:22, wij wrote: > > If =E2=84=99=3D=E2=84=95=E2=84=99, which means the remaining task can b= e completed independently in Ptime > > without I. In this sitution, solve_remain(q2,I) is equivalent to temp_a= np(q2). > > But the complexity of computation is W(|q|)=3DW(|q|-1)+ W(|q|-1)=3D 2^(= |q|-1)*W(1), > > a O(2^N) level of complexity contradicting he assumed Ptime. Therefore,= =E2=84=99=E2=89=A0=E2=84=95=E2=84=99. >=20 > If I understand it correctly, you think that if an algorithm for solving= =20 > a problem takes O(2^N) complexity then the problem can't be P-time. >=20 > But this is not correct. There are slow algorithms for fast problems.=20 > For example, if I know a binary number M, and I want to calculate=20 > whether all binary numbers with the same number of bits are less than or= =20 > equal to M, I could do it by looping through all the binary numbers with= =20 > the same number of bits, and checking if each one is less or equal. That= =20 > would be an O(2^N) algorithm. Or, I could think about the problem for a= =20 > bit, and then check whether all the bits in M are 1. That would be an=20 > O(N) algorithm. Since there is an O(N) algorithm, it is a P-time problem= =20 > - even though an O(2^N) algorithm exists as well. The proof was modified in more detail: .... .... See the link (same as above) .... Prop1: ANP problem can be divided into two size-1-subproblems. Proof: By spliting the certificate as follow: bool temp_anp(Problem q) { if(q.certificate().size()=3D1, a O(2^N) level of complexity contradic= ting the assumed Ptime. Therefore, from =E2=84=95=E2=84=99=E2=84=82=E2= =89=A0=E2=84=99, we can conclude =E2=84=99=E2=89=A0=E2=84=95=E2=84=99. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------= -- If I understand your question correctly, if solv_remain(q2,I) can be comput= ed in Ptime ANYWAY, that will lead to say that any problem in =E2=84=95=E2=84= =99 can be Ptime reduced to a dummy-fixed-time problem... that would be another 'humiliating= '=20 proof. The proof above is more 'constructive' in that the method is resuabl= e=20 (hopefully) to analyse other problems and conquer searching problems.