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From: FromTheRafters <FTR@nomail.afraid.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Sun, 03 Nov 2024 04:47:33 -0500
Organization: Peripheral Visions
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References: <vb4rde$22fb4$2@solani.org>   <vfgqoc$39o4h$2@dont-email.me> <acd4aad3-9447-45a9-bafd-f8b93d781827@att.net> <vfj3v0$1e96h$2@solani.org> <vfjg9h$3rjvp$2@dont-email.me> <vfkqlr$3fii$1@solani.org> <vflgnb$fblp$1@dont-email.me> <vflop8$1fpr2$2@solani.org> <e7920520807a00a070c701d5953e4416ce0dfd66@i2pn2.org> <vfnpf2$ukv3$1@dont-email.me> <vfns3j$3r5kq$2@i2pn2.org> <vfoq1m$14lcd$4@dont-email.me> <vfp9q0$3tqss$3@i2pn2.org> <vfq750$1fqil$2@dont-email.me> <vfqfpk$3vms5$2@i2pn2.org> <vftjuj$26ql1$2@dont-email.me> <30dffbdf129483f7b61e3284d1e7bf2ad2e5ea16@i2pn2.org> <vg0f4f$2p50e$2@dont-email.me> <9ca97f4a24ae1e3041583265125cf860d2fada11@i2pn2.org> <vg2bfl$375p7$1@dont-email.me> <vg2c64$3799e$1@dont-email.me> <vg2eju$37aml$1@dont-email.me> <vg2hr4$388sl$1@dont-email.me> <vg31kv$3av1t$1@dont-email.me> <6ed3abd1b4d30ed6db4b9152f7a0ad5da583f147@i2pn2.org> <vg5ame$3qfvj$1@dont-email.me> <vg5o9n$3sb7d$6@dont-email.me> <9a16dc217c4a1833dd297216773623a70ad06a10@i2pn2.org>
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joes submitted this idea :
> Am Sat, 02 Nov 2024 18:42:15 +0100 schrieb WM:
>> On 02.11.2024 14:50, Moebius wrote:
>>> Am 02.11.2024 um 14:21 schrieb joes:
>>>> Am Fri, 01 Nov 2024 18:03:26 +0100 schrieb WM: 
>>>>> If an invariable set of numbers is there, then there is a smallest
>>>>> and a largest number of those which are existing.
>>> or each and every n e IN there is an n' e IN (say n' = n+1)
>> Actual infinity is not based on claims for each and every, but concerns
>> all.
> Lol. That actually sheds some light on your thought process:
> how do you suppose some property holds for all x, but not
> for every?

The set of all naturals is infinite but each and every natural is 
finite.