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From: WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Sat, 2 Nov 2024 18:57:51 +0100
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On 02.11.2024 17:02, Richard Damon wrote:
> On 11/2/24 6:15 AM, WM wrote:
>> On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:
>>
>>> Infinite sets do not need to have both ends in them.
>>
>> Between 0 and 1 there are unit fractions. Hence there must be a first 
>> one. The interval without unit fractions and the interval containing 
>> unit fractions are separated by the smallest unit fraction.

> Why?
> 
> That is just finite logic.

There is no other logic.

Regards, WM