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From: Richard Damon <richard@damon-family.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Sat, 2 Nov 2024 12:02:51 -0400
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
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On 11/2/24 6:15 AM, WM wrote:
> On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:
> 
>> Infinite sets do not need to have both ends in them.
> 
> Between 0 and 1 there are unit fractions. Hence there must be a first 
> one. The interval without unit fractions and the interval containing 
> unit fractions are separated by the smallest unit fraction.
> 
> Regards, WM

Why?

That is just finite logic.

WHen we have an infinite set, both ends don't need to be there.