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From: Richard Damon <richard@damon-family.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions?
Date: Tue, 1 Oct 2024 07:08:58 -0400
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID: <3cda50fa46d5151236bcaca2a63ee0d983e52e86@i2pn2.org>
References: <vb4rde$22fb4$2@solani.org> <vcehl6$2boc$3@dont-email.me>
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On 9/30/24 7:56 PM, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
> On 9/30/2024 4:13 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 9/29/24 3:16 PM, WM wrote:
>>> On 28.09.2024 14:58, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>> On 9/27/24 3:06 PM, WM wrote:
>>>>> On 25.09.2024 19:12, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>> The problem is that it turns out the NUF(x) NEVER actually 
>>>>>> "increments" by 0ne at any finite point, it jumps from 0 to 
>>>>>> infinity (Aleph_0) in the unboundedly small gap between 0 and all 
>>>>>> x > 0,
>>>>>
>>>>> How do you distinguish them?
>>>>
>>>> They have different values, so why can't you?
>>>
>>> Then distinguish the first one.
>>>
>>> Regards, WM
>>
>> There isn't a first one.
>>
>> Show me a circle with 4 sides.
> 
> ;^) Humm, an n-gon where n is taken to infinity is a circle?
> 

But 4 is not infinity.

You example is just an illustration that WM's logic might be just a 
crude approximation for correctness, but then he relies on the parts 
that are only an approximation.

Like asserting from the measurements of the square that pi is 4

>>
>> You are just proving your logic is non-sense.
> 
>