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From: Richard Damon <richard@damon-family.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Wed, 9 Oct 2024 08:03:00 -0400
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID: <8a5e46e1c81560be6da06282423e04dd237a55f1@i2pn2.org>
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On 10/9/24 5:31 AM, WM wrote:
> On 08.10.2024 20:01, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 10/8/24 11:49 AM, WM wrote:
> 
>>>>>> In WM's mind, anything that is "fixed" has ends, but an infinite 
>>>>>> thing
>>>>>> doesn't have all those ends.
>>>
>>> Unless the infinity is shifted from the end to the centre.
>>>
>> But there is no "end" to shift.
> 
> If there is all, then there is an end.
> 
> Regards, WM
> 

Nope. that is just logic of the finite.

Which, when applied to the infinite just blows itself up.

Which has been your problem all along.