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From: Richard Damon <richard@damon-family.org>
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit
 fractions? (infinitary)
Date: Thu, 31 Oct 2024 07:36:42 -0400
Organization: i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
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On 10/31/24 4:24 AM, WM wrote:
> On 30.10.2024 21:24, FromTheRafters wrote:
>> WM explained :
>>> On 30.10.2024 16:43, FromTheRafters wrote:
>>>> on 10/30/2024, WM supposed :
>>>
>>>>> Believe what you like without foundation.
>>>>> If ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 is true, the NUF(x) grows in steps of 
>>>>> not more than 1.
>>>>
>>>> Wrong.
>>>
>>> What? ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 ?
>>
>> No, the other part. Your 'conclusion' is a non sequitur.
> 
> My conclusion is that all unit fractions are separated by large sets of 
> real points from each other. Never two or more unit fractions are at the 
> same point. Is that what you doubt? Hardly.
> 
> Then you must doubt that NUF(x) can grow only by 1 at any point x? But why?
> 
> Regards, WM
> 

And from their seperation, you try to conclude something that doesn't 
follow, the the infinite set has a lowest value in the set.

Sorry, you are just showing your ignorance of what you are talking about.