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From: olcott <polcott333@gmail.com>
Newsgroups: sci.logic
Subject: Re: Mathematical incompleteness has always been a misconception ---
 Tarski
Date: Mon, 24 Feb 2025 15:31:26 -0600
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On 2/24/2025 2:51 AM, Mikko wrote:
> On 2025-02-22 17:24:59 +0000, olcott said:
> 
>> On 2/22/2025 3:12 AM, Mikko wrote:
>>> On 2025-02-21 23:22:23 +0000, olcott said:
>>>
>>>> On 2/20/2025 3:01 AM, Mikko wrote:
>>>>> On 2025-02-18 13:50:22 +0000, olcott said:
>>>>>
>>>>>> There is nothing like that in the following concrete example:
>>>>>> LP := ~True(LP)
>>>>>>
>>>>>> In other words you are saying the Prolog is incorrect
>>>>>> to reject the Liar Paradox.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Above translated to Prolog
>>>>>>
>>>>>> ?- LP = not(true(LP)).
>>>>>> LP = not(true(LP)).
>>>>>
>>>>> According to Prolog rules LP = not(true(LP)) is permitted to fail.
>>>>> If it succeeds the operations using LP may misbehave. A memory
>>>>> leak is also possible.
>>>>>
>>>>>> ?- unify_with_occurs_check(LP, not(true(LP))).
>>>>>> false
>>>>>
>>>>> This merely means that the result of unification would be that LP 
>>>>> conains
>>>>> itself. It could be a selmantically valid result but is not in the 
>>>>> scope
>>>>> of Prolog language.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> It does not mean that. You are wrong.
>>>
>>> It does in the context where it was presented. More generally,
>>> unify_with_occurs_check also fails if the arguments are not
>>> unfiable. But this possibility is already excluded by their
>>> successfull unification.
>>>
>>
>> IT CANNOT POSSIBLY BE SEMANTICALLY VALID
> 
> Of course it is. Its semantics is well defined by the Prolog standard.

Go freaking read the Clocksin and Mellish.
an "infinite term" means NOT SEMANTICALLY VALID.

> Whether you like that semantics or not is irrelevant.
> 

What time is it (yes or no) ? is also NOT SEMANTICALLY VALID.

-- 
Copyright 2025 Olcott "Talent hits a target no one else can hit; Genius
hits a target no one else can see." Arthur Schopenhauer