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NNTP-Posting-Date: Sat, 21 Dec 2024 02:59:54 +0000
Subject: Re: how (Aristotle says "potential is actual and actual is
 potential")
Newsgroups: sci.math
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From: Ross Finlayson <ross.a.finlayson@gmail.com>
Date: Fri, 20 Dec 2024 19:00:05 -0800
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On 06/10/2024 08:36 PM, Jim Burns wrote:
> On 6/10/2024 4:48 PM, Ross Finlayson wrote:
>> On 06/09/2024 09:46 PM, Jim Burns wrote:
>
>>> [...]
>>
>> I like where you're going with this.
>
> Please help me by telling me,
> when I have guessed at what you mean,
> whether I've guessed correctly or not.
>
>>> | This putative f
>>> | called EF the equivalency function,
>>> | f(n) = n/d, 0 <= n <= d, d -> oo
>>> | in the continuum limit,
>>> |
>>> Date: Fri, 31 May 2024 18:37:34 -0700
>>>
>>> I guess
>>> | 0 <= n <= d
>>> means
>>> {0,1,…,d}
>>>
>>> I guess
>>> | f(n) = n/d, 0 <= n <= d
>>> means
>>> f{0,1,…,d}  =
>>> {0/d,1/d,…,d/d}
>>>
>>> I guess
>>> | f(n) = n/d, 0 <= n <= d, d -> oo
>>> means
>>> lim(d → ∞) f(n) = n/d, 0 <= n <= d  =
>>> lim(d → ∞) {0/d,1/d,…,d/d}
>>>
>>> My guess is that
>>> ran(f)  =  lim(d → ∞) {0/d,1/d,…,d/d}
>>>
>>> Ross Finlayson,
>>> is  ran(f)  =  lim(d → ∞) {0/d,1/d,…,d/d}  ?
>
> Thank you in advance.
>
>